(6). Any act done by a company which travels beyond the powers granted in its Object Clause is:
[A]. Voidable at the option of the directors
[B]. Valid if ratified by a special resolution of shareholders
[C]. Ultra Vires and absolutely void ab initio
[D]. Intra Vires but illegal
Correct Answer: [C]. Ultra Vires and absolutely void ab initio
(7). The Doctrine of Ultra Vires was firmly established by the House of Lords in which landmark case?
[A]. Royal British Bank v. Turquand
[B]. Ashbury Railway Carriage and Iron Co. Ltd. v. Riche
[C]. Foss v. Harbottle
[D]. Lee v. Lee’s Air Farming
Correct Answer: [B]. Ashbury Railway Carriage and Iron Co. Ltd. v. Riche
(8). Which document contains the internal rules and regulations for the management of the company?
[A]. Memorandum of Association
[B]. Prospectus
[C]. Articles of Association
[D]. Statutory Declaration
Correct Answer: [C]. Articles of Association
(9). The legal presumption that an outsider dealing with a company has read and understood the company’s MoA and AoA is called the Doctrine of:
[A]. Constructive Notice
[B]. Indoor Management
[C]. Vicarious Liability
[D]. Promissory Estoppel
Correct Answer: [A]. Constructive Notice
(10). The Doctrine of Indoor Management mitigates the harshness of Constructive Notice by allowing outsiders to assume that:
[A]. The company is highly profitable
[B]. Internal proceedings (like board resolutions) required by the AoA have been duly and properly carried out
[C]. The directors are immune from lawsuits
[D]. The MoA can be ignored
Correct Answer: [B]. Internal proceedings (like board resolutions) required by the AoA have been duly and properly carried out
(11). Which case birthed the Doctrine of Indoor Management?
[A]. Royal British Bank v. Turquand
[B]. Rylands v. Fletcher
[C]. Donoghue v. Stevenson
[D]. Gilford Motor Co. v. Horne
Correct Answer: [A]. Royal British Bank v. Turquand
(12). An outsider CANNOT claim the protection of Turquand’s Rule (Indoor Management) if:
[A]. They acted in good faith
[B]. The transaction involved a forged document
[C]. They paid full consideration
[D]. They are a foreign citizen
Correct Answer: [B]. The transaction involved a forged document
(13). A document inviting the public to subscribe for shares or debentures of a company is a:
[A]. Circular
[B]. Prospectus
[C]. Power of Attorney
[D]. Trust Deed
Correct Answer: [B]. Prospectus
(14). A prospectus must be drafted with absolute truthfulness and no material concealment. It is considered a contract of:
[A]. Caveat Emptor (Let the buyer beware)
[B]. Uberrimae Fidei (Utmost good faith)
[C]. Quantum Meruit
[D]. Res Ipsa Loquitur
Correct Answer: [B]. Uberrimae Fidei (Utmost good faith)
(15). Under Section 35 of the 2013 Act, civil liability for a misstatement in a prospectus means that:
[A]. Directors face the death penalty
[B]. Promoters and directors must personally compensate defrauded subscribers for any loss sustained
[C]. The company is dissolved immediately
[D]. Shareholders must pay the government
Correct Answer: [B]. Promoters and directors must personally compensate defrauded subscribers for any loss sustained
(16). Criminal liability for authorizing a misleading prospectus under Section 34 attracts the severe penalties of Section:
[A]. 302 IPC
[B]. 447 of the Companies Act (Corporate Fraud)
[C]. 144 CrPC
[D]. 420 BNS
Correct Answer: [B]. 447 of the Companies Act (Corporate Fraud)
(17). In Rex v. Kylsant, the court held that a prospectus was legally false and fraudulent because:
[A]. It contained forged signatures
[B]. It told a deceptive half-truth by omitting the fact that dividends were paid from wartime reserves, not current profits
[C]. It was printed in the wrong language
[D]. It was issued by a minor
Correct Answer: [B]. It told a deceptive half-truth by omitting the fact that dividends were paid from wartime reserves, not current profits
(18). The “Statement in lieu of Prospectus” was a feature of the 1956 Act used when a public company:
[A]. Did not invite the public to subscribe to its shares
[B]. Went bankrupt
[C]. Merged with a foreign entity
[D]. Refused to pay taxes
Correct Answer: [A]. Did not invite the public to subscribe to its shares
(19). Under the Companies Act 2013, the “Statement in lieu of Prospectus” has been:
[A]. Made mandatory for all companies
[B]. Replaced by the Red Herring Prospectus
[C]. Completely abolished and removed
[D]. Extended to 100 pages
Correct Answer: [C]. Completely abolished and removed
(20). A person becomes a full “Member” of a company when:
[A]. They verbally agree to buy shares
[B]. They sign a pre-incorporation contract
[C]. They agree in writing and their name is entered in the Register of Members
[D]. They visit the registered office
Correct Answer: [C]. They agree in writing and their name is entered in the Register of Members
(21). Can a person be a “Member” without holding any shares?
[A]. No, impossible
[B]. Yes, in a company limited by guarantee without share capital
[C]. Only if they are a director
[D]. Only if they are a minor
Correct Answer: [B]. Yes, in a company limited by guarantee without share capital
(22). The subscribers to the Memorandum of Association become members:
[A]. Only after paying full share value
[B]. Immediately upon the incorporation of the company
[C]. After one year of operations
[D]. Upon the first board meeting
Correct Answer: [B]. Immediately upon the incorporation of the company
(23). Under Section 180 of the 2013 Act, the Board of Directors can borrow money without shareholder approval up to:
[A]. Unlimited amounts
[B]. The aggregate of its paid-up share capital, free reserves, and securities premium
[C]. Twice the net worth of the directors
[D]. ₹10 Crores only
Correct Answer: [B]. The aggregate of its paid-up share capital, free reserves, and securities premium
(24). An instrument issued by a company acknowledging a debt, typically secured by a charge on assets, is a:
[A]. Share Certificate
[B]. Dividend Warrant
[C]. Debenture
[D]. Promissory Note
Correct Answer: [C]. Debenture
(25). A charge created on specific, identifiable property (like a factory building) that the company cannot sell without the creditor’s consent is a:
[A]. Floating Charge
[B]. Fixed Charge
[C]. Crystallized Charge
[D]. Contingent Charge
Correct Answer: [B]. Fixed Charge
(26). A charge that hovers over a fluctuating class of assets (like inventory) allowing the company to deal with them in the ordinary course of business is a:
[A]. Fixed Charge
[B]. Floating Charge
[C]. Statutory Charge
[D]. Void Charge
Correct Answer: [B]. Floating Charge
(27). The process by which a floating charge converts into a fixed charge upon a default or winding up is called:
[A]. Subrogation
[B]. Novation
[C]. Crystallization
[D]. Amalgamation
Correct Answer: [C]. Crystallization
(28). Under Section 77 of the 2013 Act, a company must register a newly created charge with the ROC within:
[A]. 7 days
[B]. 15 days
[C]. 30 days
[D]. 90 days
Correct Answer: [C]. 30 days
(29). If a charge is not registered with the ROC, what is its status?
[A]. It is perfectly valid and superior
[B]. It is void against the liquidator and any other creditor of the company
[C]. It becomes a government debt
[D]. It transforms into equity shares
Correct Answer: [B]. It is void against the liquidator and any other creditor of the company
(30). Entrenchment provisions in the Articles of Association mean that:
[A]. The company is buried
[B]. Certain clauses can only be altered by a procedure more restrictive than a special resolution (e.g., a 90% or 100% vote)
[C]. Directors can never be fired
[D]. The government owns the shares
Correct Answer: [B]. Certain clauses can only be altered by a procedure more restrictive than a special resolution (e.g., a 90% or 100% vote)
(31). The distinction between the 1956 Act and the 2013 Act regarding objects clauses is that the 1956 Act:
[A]. Had no object clauses
[B]. Divided objects into “Main”, “Ancillary”, and “Other” objects
[C]. Permitted ultra vires acts
[D]. Only allowed one object
Correct Answer: [B]. Divided objects into “Main”, “Ancillary”, and “Other” objects
(32). A prospectus issued that does not include complete particulars of the quantum or price of the securities included therein is called a:
[A]. Shelf Prospectus
[B]. Red Herring Prospectus
[C]. Deemed Prospectus
[D]. Abridged Prospectus
Correct Answer: [B]. Red Herring Prospectus
(33). If a company allots shares without issuing a prospectus, under the 2013 Act it must follow the strict rules of:
(34). The rule that promoters cannot make secret profits is based on their:
[A]. Executive power
[B]. Fiduciary position towards the company
[C]. Statutory immunity
[D]. Labor rights
Correct Answer: [B]. Fiduciary position towards the company
(35). In Erlanger v. New Sombrero Phosphate Co., the promoter was penalized for:
[A]. Selling his own property to the company at a hidden profit
[B]. Murder
[C]. Failing to register a charge
[D]. Issuing a forged debenture
Correct Answer: [A]. Selling his own property to the company at a hidden profit
(36). An act which is intra vires the company but ultra vires the directors:
[A]. Is completely void
[B]. Can be ratified by the shareholders in a general meeting
[C]. Attracts the death penalty
[D]. Dissolves the company
Correct Answer: [B]. Can be ratified by the shareholders in a general meeting
(37). A document containing the salient features of a prospectus as specified by SEBI is called an:
[A]. Abridged Prospectus
[B]. Initial Memorandum
[C]. Draft Red Herring
[D]. Index
Correct Answer: [A]. Abridged Prospectus
(38). The legal remedy for an investor who was induced to buy shares by a fraudulent prospectus includes:
[A]. Rescission of the contract and claiming damages
[B]. Claiming the director’s personal house
[C]. Becoming the CEO
[D]. Forgiving the debt
Correct Answer: [A]. Rescission of the contract and claiming damages
(39). Which case established the exception to Indoor Management where the outsider was negligent and put on “inquiry” due to suspicious circumstances?
[A]. Anand Bihari Lal v. Dinshaw & Co.
[B]. Salomon v. Salomon
[C]. Heydon’s Case
[D]. Carlill v. Carbolic
Correct Answer: [A]. Anand Bihari Lal v. Dinshaw & Co.
(40). Shares held in electronic form in a depository (Demat) make the depository the registered owner, while the investor is the:
[A]. Beneficial Owner (and recognized as a Member under Sec 2(55))
[B]. Unsecured creditor
[C]. Promoter
[D]. Auditor
Correct Answer: [A]. Beneficial Owner (and recognized as a Member under Sec 2(55))
(41). A floating charge is generally recognized as an equitable charge on the assets of a:
[A]. Going concern
[B]. Liquidated company
[C]. Sole proprietorship
[D]. Insolvent estate
Correct Answer: [A]. Going concern
(42). If the Memorandum and the Articles of Association contradict each other:
[A]. The Articles prevail
[B]. The Memorandum prevails
[C]. Both become void
[D]. The court flips a coin
Correct Answer: [B]. The Memorandum prevails
(43). The primary defense available to a director facing civil liability for a misstatement in a prospectus is to prove:
[A]. That they didn’t read it
[B]. That they had reasonable grounds to believe, and did believe up to the issue time, that the statement was true
[C]. That they were out of the country
[D]. That they bribed the auditor
Correct Answer: [B]. That they had reasonable grounds to believe, and did believe up to the issue time, that the statement was true
(44). Section 447 of the Companies Act, 2013 is widely known as the master section penalizing:
[A]. Late tax filing
[B]. Corporate Fraud
[C]. Insider trading exclusively
[D]. Environmental violations
Correct Answer: [B]. Corporate Fraud
(45). A company creates a floating charge over its inventory. The next day, it sells 100 units of inventory to a retail buyer. Can the charge-holder seize those 100 units from the buyer?
[A]. Yes, the charge applies to all inventory.
[B]. No, until crystallization, the company has the right to deal with its assets in the ordinary course of business.
[C]. Yes, if they file an FIR.
[D]. Only if the buyer is a foreigner.
Correct Answer: [B]. No, until crystallization, the company has the right to deal with its assets in the ordinary course of business.
(46). A public company must have a minimum of 7 members. If membership falls to 5 and it carries on business for more than 6 months, the members aware of this fact become:
[A]. Immune from debt
[B]. Personally liable for the company’s debts contracted thereafter (Section 3A)
[C]. Partners of an LLP
[D]. Promoters again
Correct Answer: [B]. Personally liable for the company’s debts contracted thereafter (Section 3A)
(47). The “Name Clause” of a public limited company’s MoA must strictly end with the word:
[A]. Private Limited
[B]. Limited
[C]. Corporation
[D]. Inc.
Correct Answer: [B]. Limited
(48). Who can file a petition to claim compensation for a false statement in a prospectus?
[A]. Any citizen of India
[B]. Only a person who subscribed for securities relying on the misleading prospectus and sustained a loss
[C]. A competing company
[D]. The Registrar of Companies
Correct Answer: [B]. Only a person who subscribed for securities relying on the misleading prospectus and sustained a loss
(49). The transition from the 1956 Act to the 2013 Act regarding capital raising was intended to:
[A]. Loosen regulations and allow shadow funding
[B]. Maximize transparency, protect retail investors, and impose stringent penal consequences for corporate fraud
[C]. Abolish the stock market
[D]. Encourage paper-based share certificates
Correct Answer: [B]. Maximize transparency, protect retail investors, and impose stringent penal consequences for corporate fraud
(50). The synergy of Unit II demonstrates that MoAs, AoAs, Prospectuses, and Registration of Charges serve to:
[A]. Confuse the public.
[B]. Ensure that a company operates strictly within its legal mandate, respects internal democracy, deals transparently with investors, and secures creditor debt.
[C]. Eliminate corporate profits.
[D]. Make all business illegal.
Correct Answer: [B]. Ensure that a company operates strictly within its legal mandate, respects internal democracy, deals transparently with investors, and secures creditor debt.
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