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Delegated Legislation & Administrative Functions | Administrative Law | MCQ Quiz with Answers | Test Your Legal Knowledge

Delegated Legislation & Administrative Functions MCQ Quiz

Delegated Legislation & Administrative Functions MCQ Quiz (1–50)

(1). [AIBE 2021] Which administrative function involves framing rules of general application that apply prospectively to an open class of people?

  • [A]. Quasi-Judicial function
  • [B]. Legislative function
  • [C]. Ministerial function
  • [D]. Administrative function

(2). An administrative body conducts an inquiry, takes evidence, and decides a dispute between two contesting parties according to law. This function is:

  • [A]. Ministerial
  • [B]. Quasi-Judicial
  • [C]. Purely Legislative
  • [D]. Sovereign

(3). [CLAT-PG 2019] A function where the authority has no discretion whatsoever and must perform an act mandated by law is known as:

  • [A]. Discretionary function
  • [B]. Ministerial function
  • [C]. Quasi-legislative function
  • [D]. Policy formulation

(4). Delegated legislation refers to:

  • [A]. Laws passed directly by Parliament after exhaustive debate
  • [B]. Rules, regulations, and bye-laws framed by executive authorities under powers given by a parent Act
  • [C]. Judgments delivered by the Supreme Court
  • [D]. International treaties signed by the President

(5). [AIBE 2023] The constitutional doctrine that prohibits Parliament from surrendering its core policy-making power to the executive is known as the prohibition against delegating:

  • [A]. Judicial review
  • [B]. Essential legislative functions
  • [C]. Tax collection duties
  • [D]. Executive pardons

(6). Which of the following is NOT a primary reason for the phenomenal growth of delegated legislation?

  • [A]. Lack of parliamentary time
  • [B]. Technical complexity of modern socio-economic issues
  • [C]. The desire of the executive to act as a dictator
  • [D]. Need for flexibility and emergency action

(7). [CLAT-PG 2020] Conditional legislation differs from delegated legislation because in conditional legislation:

  • [A]. The executive makes the law from scratch.
  • [B]. The legislature passes a complete law, but leaves it to the executive to determine the time or factual precondition for its application.
  • [C]. The judiciary frames the rules.
  • [D]. No parent act is required.

(8). The Latin maxim Delegatus non potest delegare means:

  • [A]. The king can do no wrong
  • [B]. A delegate cannot further delegate rule-making power unless expressly permitted
  • [C]. Let the buyer beware
  • [D]. Justice must be seen to be done

(9). [AIBE 2018] If a subordinate rule framed by the executive violates a Fundamental Right guaranteed under Part III of the Constitution, the rule is:

  • [A]. Fully valid because it is executive policy
  • [B]. Substantive Ultra Vires the Constitution and void
  • [C]. Voidable only at the PM’s discretion
  • [D]. Protected by sovereign immunity

(10). When a delegated rule fails to follow a mandatory procedural step (such as prior publication or stakeholder consultation) prescribed by the parent act, it is:

  • [A]. Procedurally Ultra Vires
  • [B]. Substantively Ultra Vires
  • [C]. Valid conditional legislation
  • [D]. Immune from challenge

(11). [CLAT-PG 2022] The specialized parliamentary committee tasked with meticulously scrutinizing all executive-made rules and regulations in India is the:

  • [A]. Public Accounts Committee
  • [B]. Committee on Subordinate Legislation
  • [C]. Estimates Committee
  • [D]. Law Commission

(12). What is the legal effect of a “Laying Clause” that specifies a negative resolution procedure?

  • [A]. The rule does not come into effect until Parliament votes to approve it.
  • [B]. The rule comes into effect immediately, but stands annulled if Parliament passes a resolution modifying or rejecting it within a specified timeframe.
  • [C]. The rule is sent to the President for a veto.
  • [D]. The rule is advisory only.

(13). [AIBE 2019] In State of U.P. v. Babu Ram Upadhya, the Supreme Court held that valid statutory rules framed under delegated powers:

  • [A]. Have the same force and effect of law as the parent Act itself
  • [B]. Are inferior to executive circulars
  • [C]. Cannot be enforced by courts
  • [D]. Require re-enactment every year

(14). Can the executive levy a tax or a monetary fee through delegated legislation without explicit authorization in the parent Act?

  • [A]. Yes, executive power includes taxation
  • [B]. No, the power to tax or impose financial penalties must be strictly and expressly authorized by the parent Act
  • [C]. Yes, during financial emergencies
  • [D]. Only if approved by the RBI

(15). [CLAT-PG 2021] In In Re Delhi Laws Act, the Constitution Bench examined the permissible limits of:

  • [A]. Judicial review
  • [B]. Delegated legislation and essential legislative functions
  • [C]. Presidential ordinances
  • [D]. Governor’s pardoning power

(16). Which of the following is an example of Substantive Ultra Vires?

  • [A]. Failing to publish a rule in the official gazette
  • [B]. A rule that goes entirely beyond the scope, objects, and powers granted by the parent Act
  • [C]. Failing to present the rule before Parliament
  • [D]. Delaying publication by 2 days

(17). [AIBE 2022] Lord Hewart famously criticized the unchecked expansion of executive rule-making power in his 1929 book titled:

  • [A]. The Rule of Law
  • [B]. The New Despotism
  • [C]. Introduction to Administrative Law
  • [D]. Administrative Justice

(18). If a parent Act explicitly grants the power to sub-delegate rule-making authority to a subordinate official:

  • [A]. Sub-delegation is illegal and void.
  • [B]. Sub-delegation is legally valid and permissible.
  • [C]. It requires a fresh constitutional amendment.
  • [D]. Only the Supreme Court can exercise that power.

(19). [CLAT-PG 2018] Which of the following mechanisms represents direct legislative control over delegated legislation?

  • [A]. Issuing a writ of mandamus
  • [B]. Parliamentary questions, debates, and motions concerning the subordinate rules
  • [C]. Filing a civil suit
  • [D]. Filing an FIR against the bureaucrat

(20). The presumption of constitutionality attached to delegated legislation means:

  • [A]. Courts assume the rule is invalid until proven otherwise.
  • [B]. Courts start with the presumption that the rule is valid, placing the heavy burden of proving ultra vires on the challenger.
  • [C]. The executive can never be wrong.
  • [D]. Parliament cannot repeal the rule.

(21). [AIBE 2023] Does judicial review of delegated legislation extend to examining the wisdom or expediency of the rule?

  • [A]. Yes, courts decide if the rule is economically smart.
  • [B]. No, courts only examine the legality and constitutionality (ultra vires), not its policy wisdom.
  • [C]. Yes, judges can rewrite executive rules.
  • [D]. Only if the Prime Minister requests it.

(22). Which Article of the Indian Constitution defines “law” to include ordinances, orders, bye-laws, rules, regulations, and notifications?

  • [A]. Article 14
  • [B]. Article 21
  • [C]. Article 13(3)(a)
  • [D]. Article 323A

(23). [CLAT-PG 2019] In State of M.P. v. Bharat Singh, a delegated executive order was struck down because it violated:

  • [A]. Tax laws
  • [B]. Fundamental Rights (Article 19)
  • [C]. Civil Procedure Code
  • [D]. Company law

(24). The power of an authority to amend, modify, or rescind rules it has previously issued is statutorily backed in India by:

  • [A]. Section 21 of the General Clauses Act, 1897
  • [B]. Article 356
  • [C]. The Indian Penal Code
  • [D]. The Contract Act

(25). [AIBE 2020] When a rule operates retrospectively to take away vested rights, courts look for:

  • [A]. Explicit authorization in the parent Act; retrospective delegation cannot be implied.
  • [B]. Verbal approval from the cabinet.
  • [C]. Registration with the UN.
  • [D]. Nothing; all rules are automatically retrospective.

(26). The classification of administrative functions is primarily undertaken to determine:

  • [A]. The salary of the bureaucrat
  • [B]. The applicable procedural safeguards, such as whether the Principles of Natural Justice apply
  • [C]. Which political party is in power
  • [D]. The color of the government gazette

(27). [CLAT-PG 2022] Which of the following jurists categorized administrative actions into administrative, executive, and judicial based on clear analytical distinctions?

  • [A]. Salmond and Wade
  • [B]. Jain & Jain
  • [C]. Austin
  • [D]. Kelsen

(28). If a minister issues a general policy directive to a public corporation without any statutory backing, it is classified as:

  • [A]. Delegated legislation
  • [B]. Pure executive/administrative action
  • [C]. Judicial adjudication
  • [D]. Primary legislation

(29). [AIBE 2018] A writ of Mandamus can be successfully issued against an official refusing to perform a:

  • [A]. Legislative rule-making act
  • [B]. Purely discretionary act
  • [C]. Mandatory ministerial duty
  • [D]. Cabinet policy decision

(30). The primary objective of the Committee on Subordinate Legislation is to check:

  • [A]. If the executive is bypassing Parliament by creating excessive, unauthorized, or unreasonable rules
  • [B]. The personal income of ministers
  • [C]. Court judgments
  • [D]. Foreign exchange reserves

(31). [CLAT-PG 2021] In Hukum Chand v. State of Haryana, the Supreme Court held that failure to comply with mandatory statutory provisions regarding the making of rules renders the rules:

  • [A]. Perfectly valid
  • [B]. Procedurally ultra vires and void
  • [C]. Voidable only after 5 years
  • [D]. Subject to presidential pardon

(32). The process where a legislature delegates power to the executive, which in turn delegates it to a lower authority, is known as:

  • [A]. Sub-delegation
  • [B]. Primary legislation
  • [C]. Conditional enactment
  • [D]. Judicial usurpation

(33). [AIBE 2019] Can a rule framed under delegated legislation impose criminal imprisonment or heavy fines without express statutory authorization in the parent Act?

  • [A]. Yes, executives have inherent penal powers.
  • [B]. No, penal liability and imprisonment cannot be created by subordinate rules unless the parent Act explicitly grants such power.
  • [C]. Yes, if notified in two newspapers.
  • [D]. Only for traffic offenses.

(34). The distinction between an administrative act and a quasi-judicial act historically turned on whether the authority was under a duty to:

  • [A]. Earn a profit
  • [B]. Act judicially (observe a lis and hear parties)
  • [C]. Consult the Prime Minister
  • [D]. Wear black robes

(35). [CLAT-PG 2023] In A.K. Kraipak, the Supreme Court abolished the artificial barrier between:

  • [A]. Civil and criminal law
  • [B]. Administrative and quasi-judicial powers regarding natural justice
  • [C]. Centre and State jurisdictions
  • [D]. Fundamental Rights and DPSP

(36). Which type of delegated legislation involves the executive bringing an Act into operation upon the satisfaction of a specific factual condition?

  • [A]. Sub-delegation
  • [B]. Conditional legislation
  • [C]. Taxing legislation
  • [D]. Penal legislation

(37). [AIBE 2021] If a parent Act provides that “The Central Government may, by notification, make rules to carry out the purposes of this Act,” this is a classic formula for:

  • [A]. Delegated legislation
  • [B]. Judicial decree
  • [C]. Constitutional amendment
  • [D]. Private contract

(38). The doctrine of Ultra Vires in administrative law operates as a shield to ensure that:

  • [A]. Administrative authorities do not exceed the legal boundaries set by Parliament and the Constitution
  • [B]. Courts never interfere with government policy
  • [C]. Parliament can dissolve the judiciary
  • [D]. Citizens cannot file writ petitions

(39). [CLAT-PG 2020] Under parliamentary oversight, a “Positive Resolution” laying clause requires that:

  • [A]. The rule is active immediately and stays active forever.
  • [B]. The rule does not come into force until expressly approved by a resolution of Parliament.
  • [C]. The rule is rejected automatically unless hidden.
  • [D]. The Prime Minister signs it twice.

(40). The growth of Administrative Law and Delegated Legislation proves that modern governance requires:

  • [A]. Absolute rigidity
  • [B]. Administrative discretion guided by statutory standards and judicial oversight
  • [C]. Total abolition of Parliament
  • [D]. Rule by military decree

(41). [AIBE 2017] When an administrative authority exercises a purely administrative (discretionary) function, courts will primarily review it for:

  • [A]. Absolute perfection
  • [B]. Arbitriness, mala fides, unreasonableness, and abuse of discretion (Wednesbury unreasonableness)
  • [C]. Grammatical correctness
  • [D]. Profitability

(42). The Wednesbury test of unreasonableness (often applied in judicial review of administrative action) originates from English administrative law and examines whether a decision is:

  • [A]. So absurd that no sensible authority could ever have dreamed it up
  • [B]. Approved by the King
  • [C]. Involving more than 10 crores
  • [D]. Written in English

(43). [CLAT-PG 2019] Which of the following is an example of an unconstitutional delegation of essential legislative function?

  • [A]. Delegating the power to fix minor toll rates
  • [B]. Delegating absolute power to the executive to repeal or amend any act of Parliament at its whim (often called a “Henry VIII clause” without adequate legislative safeguards)
  • [C]. Delegating rule-making for municipal sanitation
  • [D]. Delegating the date of enforcement of an act

(44). The legal status of rules framed under valid delegated legislation is that they are treated as part of:

  • [A]. The parent statute itself
  • [B]. Private corporate bylaws
  • [C]. International customary law
  • [D]. Moral guidelines only

(45). [AIBE 2022] If an authority uses its delegated power for a purpose other than what Parliament intended (improper motive), the action is void under the doctrine of:

  • [A]. Malice in Law / Improper Purpose
  • [B]. Res Judicata
  • [C]. Caveat Emptor
  • [D]. Stare Decisis

(46). Which of the following committees examines government assurances, promises, and undertakings given on the floor of Parliament, working alongside the Subordinate Legislation Committee?

  • [A]. Committee on Government Assurances
  • [B]. Public Undertakings Committee
  • [C]. Privilege Committee
  • [D]. Rules Committee

(47). [CLAT-PG 2021] The ultimate objective of both Legislative and Judicial control over Delegated Legislation is to uphold:

  • [A]. Bureaucratic efficiency
  • [B]. The Rule of Law and Constitutional democracy
  • [C]. Judicial supremacy over Parliament
  • [D]. Executive autocracy

(48). Under Section 21 of the General Clauses Act, the power to issue a notification or rule includes the power to:

  • [A]. Amend, vary, or rescind it, subject to the same conditions
  • [B]. Arrest violators immediately
  • [C]. Declare war
  • [D]. Impeach judges

(49). [AIBE 2023] In summary, Delegated Legislation is constitutionally permissible in India provided that:

  • [A]. Parliament retains essential legislative policy and provides adequate guidelines, and the rules remain intra vires the parent act and the Constitution.
  • [B]. The executive ignores Parliament entirely.
  • [C]. The judiciary drafts the rules.
  • [D]. There is no judicial review.

(50). The phrase Delegatus non potest delegare ensures that rule-making power remains anchored to:

  • [A]. The primary delegate chosen by Parliament, preventing unauthorized cascading delegation of legislative authority.
  • [B]. Private citizens.
  • [C]. The police department.
  • [D]. Foreign consulates.

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